Showing posts with label Short Q and A. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Short Q and A. Show all posts

Saturday 11 June 2022

Special Marriage Act MCQ Part 1

 Special Marriage Act

Special Marriage Act provides for marriage between

(a) Hindu.

(b) Muslim.

(c) Foreigners.

(d) All religion. è

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Special Marriage Act covers :

(a) Hindu Marriages

(b) Muslim Marriages

(c) Inter-religious Marriages è

(d) Parsi Marriages

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Renunciation of world and resumption of death are the ground of divorce available in India only under:

(a) Hindu law

(b) Hindu and Muslim law

(c) Hindu law and special marriage act è

(d) None of the above

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What is the number of witnesses required if marriage is to be solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954?

(a) Two (b) Three è

(c) Four (d) Five

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Petition for divorce under Special Marriage Act, 1954 is to be filled in the court of :

(a) Civil Judge Junior Division (b) Civil Judge Senior Division (c) District Court (d) High Court

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The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides special grounds to Hindu wife for judicial Separation and divorce. They are :

(a) Remarriage by Husband

(b) Husband found guilty of rape, sodomy and bestiality

(c) Option of puberty

(d) All the above

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Section 13-B of Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Act, 1976 and Section 28 of the Special Marriage Act 1954 are in ______.

(a) Pari Materia (b) Per Capita

(c) Perstrips (d) Both (b) and (c)

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Registration of marriage under Special Marriage Act is

(a) Mandatory

(b) Optional

(c) Only (1) & not (2)

(d) Both (1) & (2)

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Muslim Law MCQ Part 7

 Under the dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act,1939, the Muslim Wife can seek Divorce on the following grounds:

A. Husband is missing for four years or more

B. Failure to maintain for a period of one year

C. Imprisonment for 3 years.

D. Bigamy.

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‘Talaq ahsan’ is :

(a) Revocable during the tuhr in which it has been pronunced

(b) Revocable until the next successive tuhr

(c) Revocable during the period of iddat

(d) Irrevocable

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Husband who is sane and adult compares his wife to his mother or any other female within the prohibited degrees. This is called :

(a) Talaq (b) Ila (c) Zihar (d) Lian

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Where a husband charges his wife of adultery and the charge is false, his wife is ethical to sue for and obtain divorce which is:

A. Khula

B. Lian

C. Mubara’at

D. Zihar

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A Mohammedan male of _____ may contract any number of Muta marriages.

(a) Ithna Ashari sect of the Shias

(b) Isamil sect of the Shias

(c) Zayadia sect of the Shias

(d) All the above

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Muslim Law MCQ Part 6

 For a valid Muslim marriage

(a) Offer and acceptance must be at the same time

(b) Offer and acceptance must be at the same place

(c) Offer and acceptance must be at the same time and place

(d) Offer and acceptance may be at different times and at different places

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A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding

(a) Four è

(b) Five

(c) Two

(d) one

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In case of talak, the duration of iddat is

(a) Four courses

(b) Five courses

(c) Three courses

(d) Six courses

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A Muslim is prevented from marrying his wife’s sister

(a) During the subsistence of marriage with his wife

(b) After the death of his wife

(c) After the divorce of his wife

(d) All the above

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When does the Muslim Husband married during minority loses his right to repudiate the marriage?

A. on cohabitation after attaining majority

B. on payment of dower

C. either A or B è

D. none of the above

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Muslim Law MCQ Part 5

 For a valid Muslim marriage

(a) Offer and acceptance must be at the same time

(b) Offer and acceptance must be at the same place

(c) Offer and acceptance must be at the same time and place

(d) Offer and acceptance may be at different times and at different places

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A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding

(a) Four è

(b) Five

(c) Two

(d) one

===========

In case of talak, the duration of iddat is

(a) Four courses

(b) Five courses

(c) Three courses

(d) Six courses

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A Muslim is prevented from marrying his wife’s sister

(a) During the subsistence of marriage with his wife

(b) After the death of his wife

(c) After the divorce of his wife

(d) All the above

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When does the Muslim Husband married during minority loses his right to repudiate the marriage?

A. on cohabitation after attaining majority

B. on payment of dower

C. either A or B è

D. none of the above

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Muslim Law MCQ Part 4

 A person is a Muslim ________.

(a) Only by birth

(b) Only by conversion

(c) Either by birth or by conversion è

(d) None of the above

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Muta marriage under the Muslim law means :

(a) A temporary marriage è

(b) A permanent marriage

(c) A joint venture marriage

(d) An illegal marriage

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Khula under Muslim law is kind of _____.

(a) Talak è

(b) Dower

(c) Marriage

(d) Guardianship

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Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act criminalises

A. Khula B. Mubarat C. Talaq- E- Sunnat

D. Talaq-E-Biddat è

It stipulates that instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) in any form – spoken, written, or by electronic means such as email or SMS – is illegal and void, with up to three years in jail for the husband. Under the new law, an aggrieved woman is entitled to demand maintenance for her dependent children.

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The concept of Triple Talaq under Muslim Law is

A. approved form of talaq.

B. mostly approved form of talaq.

C. protected form of talaq.

D. mostly disapproved form of talaq. è

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Muslim Law MCQ Part 3

 As per Muslim law, a marriage with a woman before completion of her Iddat period is

(a) Void

(b) Voidable

(c) Irregular è

(d) None of these

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In ______ case, Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act 1986 was held Constitutionally valid.

(a) Danial Latifi Case (b) Shahbano Case è

(c) Sarla Mudgal Case (d) None of the above

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Who of the following is related to Khyar-ul-Bulugh ?

(a) Father of the groom

(b) Mother of the bride

(c) Minor Muslim girl è

(d) Great grand mother of the boy

===============

The bigamous marriage of a Muslim woman is punishable under ______ Section of IPC.

(a) 125

(b) 498

(c) 494 è

(d) It is not punishable

==============

Which amongst the following are kinds of Muslim Marriage ?

(a) Batil

(b) Fasid

(c) Sahih

(d) All of the above è

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Gift of undivided property is called as ———— .

(a) Areeat

(b) Hiba-ba-shart-ul-iwaz

(c) Mushaa è

(d) None of the above

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Muslim Law MCQ Part 2

 According to _______, marriage is regarded as a civil contract between a man and woman which has for its objects procreation and legitimating of children.

(a) Muslim Law è

(b) Hindu Law

(c) Christian Law

(d) All the above

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The Muslim Women (Prohibition of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 is the outcome of the controversy usurped the attention of the Muslim Community all over India after the _ case.

(a) Mohd. Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum è

(b) Parvez Ahmad Khan Vs. Shahnaz Bano

(c) Usman Khan Bahmani Vs. Fatimunissa Begum

(d) Danial Latifi Vs. UOI

=======================

Divorce by order of a court of law is called :

(a) Faskh è

(b) Khula

(c) Mubarat

(d) Talaq Ahsan.

===================

In _______ case the constitutionality of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 had been challenged in the SC.

(a) Danial Latifi and Others Vs. UOI

(b) Mohd. Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum è

(c) Zohra Khatoon Vs Mohd. Ibrahim

(d) None of above

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Muslim Law MCQ Part 1

 The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, is of - - - - -

(a) 1986 è

(b) 1987

(c) 1996

(d) 1997

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The dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 provides for grounds of divorce -------

(a) Where nothing here for 4 years about husband

(b) Husband has been sentenced imprisonment for 7 years

(c) Husband is impotence

(d) all of the above è

===============

Under Muslim Law, marriage is —— .

(a) An institution legalizing male and female conjugal relations.

(b) A civil contract.

(c) Sunna.

(d) All the above.

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A Muslim woman observing iddat period marries with another man. The marriage is

(a) Sahih.

(b) Batil.

(c) Fasid. è

(d) None of the above.

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When the whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of ____ a Muslim wife can avail it as a ground for divorce.

(a) 2 yrs

(b) 7 yrs

(c) 5 yrs

(d) 4 yrs è

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Friday 10 June 2022

Infanticide

 Infanticide

Infanticide is a general term for the murder of a child aged less than 1 year, and filicide is used when the perpetrator is the parent, but neonaticide is used to refer to deliberate killing of a child up to 24 h of age by his or her parent.

William Bentinck (1828-1835): He was the Governor-General of India that banned female infanticide. He declared it as a punishable crime. The practice of female infanticide was found in western parts of India.

Provisions of IPC for infanticide:

In India, the offence of infanticide or the killing of an infant is charged as murder and is therefore equivalent to conviction under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code.

Section 315 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, relates to an act done with the intent to prevent child being born alive or to cause it to die after birth'. According to this section, an act done by a person with the intention of preventing a child from being alive when he/she is born or causing it die after he/she was born alive, causes the child to die before or after birth, will be punished for a term of imprisonment extending to ten years, or will be charged with fine, or both. Such act, when committed, does not include an act done to save the life of a pregnant woman, that is an act done in good faith.

Section 318 of IPC: This section intends to preventing infanticide. It is directed towards a person who disposing of the body of a child upon his/her birth.

The properties of this section are:

a. Secret burying or in any way disposing of the dead body of an infant

b. The fact whether the child dies before, during or after the birth is not required.

c. The person disposing the body of a child should have an intention to conceal the birth of that child.

Abandonment of an infant by a parent or a person assigned the care of a child, with the intention to fully abandon that child, leads to an offence under Section 317 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. A punishment under this section is described as a term of imprisonment for seven years, or with fine, or both.

Sec. 312 = Causing Miscarriage (Volutarily)

Sec. 313 = Causing Miscarriage without woman’s consent

Sec. 314 = Death caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriage.

Sec. 315 = Act done with intent to prevent child being born alive or to cause it to die after birth.

Sec. 316 = Causing death of quick unborn child by act amounting to culpable homicide.

Sec. 317 = Exposure and abandonment of child under twelve years, by parent or person having care of it.

Sec. 318 = Concealment of birth by secret disposal of dead body.

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Which of the following enactment declared infanticide equal to murder?

(a) Criminal Procedure Code

(b) Indian Penal Code è

(c) Immoral Trafficking Act

(d) None of the above.

================

Which of the following is not a gender-based violence?

A. Prostitution

B. Female Infanticide

C. Sex-selective Abortion

D. Culpable homicide è

Section 304 of IPC provides for culpable homicide

============

Sections 312 to 318 of the IPC deal with offences of ______.

(a) Causing of miscarriage

(b) Unborn children

(c) Exposure of infants

(d) All the above è

============

Causing miscarriage without women’s consent is punishable under ________ of IPC?

(a) Section 312 (b) Section 313 è

(c) Section 316 (d) Section 320

============

Section 312 of IPC deals with:

(a) Rape (b) Causing Miscarriage è

(c) Bigamy (d) Adultery

============

What is the meaning of expression ‘woman being quick with child’ under section 312 IPC?

A. Woman being in First trimester of pregnancy

B. Woman after third month of pregnancy è

C. Both A and B

D. None of above

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Ganga Action plan (GAP)

 Ganga Action plan (GAP) = Ganga Action Plan Overview

1. Ganga action plan was started in 1986 with the objective of pollution abatement from river Ganga.

2. GAP – Ganga Action Plan is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme. Under this plan, the National River Ganga basin authority was established and declared Ganga as a national river of India.

3. Ganga Action Plan was directed by Rajiv Gandhi. The authority is headed by the prime minister and chief ministers of all the states in which river Ganga flows.

4. GAP was divided into two phases. Phase-I started in 1985 and covered the then three states, Uttar Pradesh (UP), Bihar and West Bengal (WB).

5. Phase-II of GAP was launched in 1993, which covers seven states that include Uttarakhand, UP, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Delhi and Haryana.

6. In the second phase, Ganga action plan was created for all these tributaries. The national river conservation plan was started under the same program for the 2nd phase.

7. It included tributaries of Ganga as well like Yamuna, Mahananda, Gomti, Damodar.

8. The Ministry of Environment and forests (MoEF) was made in charge of the overall design and implementation of GAP.

9. Central Ganga Authority (CGA) came into existence under the Environment Protection Act 1986, headed by the Prime Minister of India.

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The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1974

The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act is legislated in the year

A. 1972

B. 1974 è

C. 1984

D. 1986

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The main feature of the Water Act is the control of pollution through a permit or “consent administration” procedure.

Discharge of effluents into water bodies was only allowed by obtaining the consent of the State Board, within restrictions it poses.

Act covers the following aspects of regulating water resources in the country:

1. To prevent and control water pollution.

2. To maintain “wholesomeness” of water, i.e. to maintain the qualities of water so that its consumption and use by living organisms is not hampered.

3. To establish State Boards for prevention and control of pollution, which gets subsumed by the Air Act, passed in 1981.

4. To empower the Boards for prevention and control of pollution.

5. To provide penalties for breaking the rules of the provisions under this Act.

6. To establish state water testing laboratories and develop its protocols.

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Provisions for Central, State and Joint Boards have been made under

(a) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 è

(b) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

(c) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(d) All of the above

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The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

 The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in the year :

(a) 1986 (b) 1974

(c) 1994 (d) 1972 è

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Objectives of wild life conservation

1. Protection of natural habitats of organisms through controlled exploita­tion.

2. Maintenance of rare species in protected areas such as national parks, santuries etc.,

3. Establishment of specific biosphere reserves for endangered plants and animals.

4. Protection of wild life through legislation such as banning hunting etc.,

5. Imposing specific restrictions on export of endangered plants and animals or their products.

6. Educating the public about the need to protect and preserve the environ­ment as a long range goal for the welfare of future generations.

Salient Features of Wildlife Protection Act

1. This Act provides for the protection of a listed species of animals, birds, and plants, and also for the establishment of a network of ecologically-important protected areas in the country.

2. The Act provides for the formation of wildlife advisory boards, wildlife wardens, specifies their powers and duties, etc.

3. It helped India become a party to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

4. CITES is a multilateral treaty with the objective of protecting endangered animals and plants. It is also known as the Washington Convention and was adopted as a result of a meeting of IUCN members.

5. The Act prohibited the hunting of endangered species.

6. Scheduled animals are prohibited from being traded as per the Act’s provisions.

7. The Act provides for licenses for the sale, transfer, and possession of some wildlife species.

8. It provides for the establishment of wildlife sanctuaries, national parks, etc.

9. Its provisions paved the way for the formation of the Central Zoo Authority. This is the central body responsible for the oversight of zoos in India. It was established in 1992.

10. The Act created six schedules which gave varying degrees of protection to classes of flora and fauna.

11. Schedule I and Schedule II (Part II) get absolute protection, and offences under these schedules attract the maximum penalties.

12. The schedules also include species that may be hunted.

13. The National Board for Wildlife was constituted as a statutory organization under the provisions of this Act. This is an advisory board that offers advice to the central government on issues of wildlife conservation in India. It is also the apex body to review and approve all matters related to wildlife, projects of national parks, sanctuaries, etc. The chief function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and forests. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.

14. The Act also provided for the establishment of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. It is a statutory body of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change with an overall supervisory and coordination part, performing capacities as given in the Act. Its mandate is to strengthen tiger conservation in India. It gives statutory authority to Project Tiger which was launched in 1973 and has put the endangered tiger on a guaranteed path of revival by protecting it from extinction.

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Oleum gas leak case 1986 = M C Mehta Vs Union of India

Which case resulted in the creation of the absolute liability principle?

A. Ryland v Fletcher

B. Oleum gas leak case 1986  è

C. Bhopal gas leak case

D. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India

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The absolute liability principle:

The rule of absolute liability was evolved in the case of M.C. Mehta v Union of India. This was a very important landmark judgment that brought in a new rule in the history of the Indian Law. The rule held that where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and it harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such hazardous or inherently dangerous activity resulting, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate to all those who are affected by the accident.

What is Absolute Liability?

If an industry or enterprise is engaged in some inherently dangerous activity from which it is deriving commercial gain and that activity is capable of causing catastrophic damage then the industry officials are absolutely liable to pay compensation to the aggrieved parties. The industry cannot plead that all safety measures were taken care of by them and that there was negligence on their part. They will not be allowed any exceptions neither can they take up any defence like that of Act of God' or Act of Stranger'

In M.C. Mehta v Union of India, In the city of Delhi, there was severe leakage of oleum gas on the 4th and the 6th of December, 1985. This took place in one of the units of Shriram Foods and Fertilizers Industries belonging to the Delhi Cloth Mills Ltd. due to this, an advocate practicing in the Tis Hazari Court had died and many others were affected by the same. The action was brought through a writ petition by way of public interest litigation (PIL).

===========

Recently in which case, the rule of absolute liability was applied?

A. Visakhapatnam gas leak case: LG Polymers

B. M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India ===>

C. Naresh Dutt Tyagi v State of UP

D. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India

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Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action Vs Union of India

 In which of the following did the court accept the precautionary principle along with the polluter pays principle as part of the legal system?

a. Vellore Citizens welfare forum vs Union of India

b. M.C.Mehta Vs Kamal Nath

c. Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs Union of India

d. Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action Vs Union of India è

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Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action Vs Union of India

In this case, the Principle of “Polluter Pays” was expressly implemented, as the Court ruled that, under Section 3 and Section 5 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the Court has the authority to undertake steps to put such a rule into effect. It was introduced under Principle 16 of the Rio Summit of 1992 which specified that the polluter must principally pay for the pollution charges.

There is also a debate about whether only a civil action against the polluter is satisfactory or whether there is a necessity to make the polluters criminally liable as well. The provisions of Sections 268 and 290 of the Indian Penal Code were already being utilized to declare the accused criminally responsible for public nuisance in relation to environmental disturbance, which was way before the adoption of the Stockholm Declaration in 1972. Following the Stockholm Declaration, the Water Pollution Prevention and Control Act of 1974, and the Air Pollution Prevention and Control Act of 1981 contain the provisions for the initiation of criminal proceedings against such polluters.

Basically, the court implemented the concept of polluters pay, which implies, as per the court, that if an activity carried out, is of a harmful nature, then the individuals conducting these very activities will be required to compensate to make up for the damage caused to any other person irrespective of whether appropriate precautionary measures were taken or not while carrying out such an activity.

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A.P. Pollution Control Board v M.V. Nayudu

 “In order to ensure that there is neither damage to the environment nor to the ecology and at the same time ensuring sustainable development it can refer scientific and technical aspects for investigating and opinion to statutory expert bodies having a combination of both judicial technical expertise in such matter”, this was held in –

a. A.P. Pollution Control Board v M.V. Nayudu è

b. Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum V Union of India

c. M.C. Mehta V Kamal Nath

d. Narmada Bachao Andolan v Union of India

================

Judgement

The Court held that the authorities could not grant a NOC to set up industries within 10 K.M.

The Court directed the Government of Andhra Pradesh to identify other industries within 10 Km of the reservoirs and take appropriate action to prevent pollution to the drinking water in these two reservoirs.

The Court held that the Board shall not permit any polluting industry within 10 Km area and asked them to submit a report within four months with respect to the industries existing within 10 Km of reservoirs that potentially caused pollution.

The Court also observed that the principle of promissory estoppels did not apply to the present case.

The Court recommended the Law Commission of India to consider a review of the environmental laws existing in the country.

The Court also recommended the need for establishing environmental courts consisting of experts in environmental law and members of the Judiciary.

Analysis and Conclusion

The right to sustainable development is declared as an inalienable human right in the Declaration on the Right to Development, 1986 by the UN General Assembly.

The 1992 Rio Conference declared, “Human beings are at the centre of concerns for sustainable development.”  

Thus, access to drinking water is an essential element for life, and it is the duty of the state under Article 21 to provide clean drinking water to its citizens.

In Narmada Bachao Andolan vs Union of India, Kirpal J observed, “Water is the basic need for the survival of human beings and is part of the right of life and human rights as enshrined in Article 21 of the Constitution of India.”

The right to a healthy environment, along with the right to sustainable development, must be balanced.

As observed by the Supreme Court in this case, there is a need to set up environmental courts in order to ensure speedy disposal of environment litigations.

It is also necessary to take measures that will help reduce environmental degradation to create specific criteria for such hazardous industries.

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Church of God (Gospel) in India-Vs.-K.K.R. Majestic

“No religious practices should disturb peace of society” was held in the case of _____.

(a) Vellore Citizen Forum Case

(b) Ganga Pollution Case

(c) Church of God (Gospel) in India-Vs.-K.K.R. Majestic è

(d) Taj Trapezium Case.

Loudspeaker case 1999

This case is related to the noise pollution.

The appellant, a minority institution was in the practice of using musical instruments such as drum set, triple ganga, guitar etc. The respondent welfare Association filed a Criminal O.P before the High Court of Madras for a direction to the authorities [Superintendent of Police] to take action on the basis of the letter issued by the Joint Chief Environment Engineer of the TMPCB.

In High Court it was contended by the Church that the petition was filed with an oblique motive in order to prevent a religious minority institution from pursuing its religious activities and the Court cannot issue any directions to prevent the church from practicing its religious beliefs. The High Court balanced the act by giving directions to the religious minority institution to bring down the noise level by keeping the speakers at a lower level.

But the Court held that 'undisputedly no religion prescribed that prayers should be performed by disturbing the peace of other nor does it preach that they should be through voice-amplifiers or beating of drums.

In our view, in a civilized society in the name of religion, activities which disturb old, infirm persons, students or children having their sleep in the early hours or during day time or other persons carrying on other activities cannot be permitted..'.

The Court while adjudicating the appeal observed that in the present case, the contention with regard to the right under Art. 25 or Art. 26 of the Constitution which are subject to 'public order, morality and health' are not required to be dealt with in detail mainly because.. no religion prescribes or preaches that prayers are required to be performed through voice amplifiers or by beating of drums. In any case, if there is such practice, it should not adversely affect the rights of others including that of being not disturbed in their activities.

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SMOG

 Which of the following pollutants are responsible for the cause of SMOG?

A. Incinerators

B. emission from vehicles

C. Both A & B è

D. Ozone gas

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Smog is air pollution that reduces visibility.

The term "smog" was first used in the early 1900s to describe a mix of smoke and fog.

The smoke usually came from burning coal.

Smog was common in industrial areas, and remains a familiar sight in cities today.

Today, most of the smog we see is photochemical smog.

======


Radiation pollution

Which among the following can cause radiation pollution?

A. Uranium è

B. Ozone

C. Sulphur

D. Methane

======


The National Environmental Tribunal Act

 The National Environmental Tribunal Act was passed in :

(a) 1992

(b) 1995 è

(c) 1990

(d) 1994

Explanation

In 1995, the Central Government established the National Environment Tribunal (through the National Environment Tribunal Act 1995) to provide for strict liability for damage arising out of accidents caused from the handling of hazardous substances.

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Kyoto Protocol 1997

Green House Conference is also known

(a) Kyoto Conference è

(b) Stockholm Conference

(c) The Montreal Protocol

(d) All of the above.

==========

Kyoto Protocol 1997 = The Kyoto Protocol was an international treaty which extended the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that global warming is occurring and that human-made CO₂ emissions are driving it.

============

United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was held in _____.

(a) 1993

(b) 1994

(c) 1997 è Kyoto Protocol

(d) 1992

==========

The Kyoto Protocol of 1997 is a part of the Convention on Climate Change adopted at -----------

A. China

B. USA

C. Italy

D. Japan è

============

Kyoto Protocol was adopted in the year ______.

(a) 1996

(b) 1997 è

(c) 1998

(d) 1999

Explanation:

The Kyoto Protocol was adopted on 11 December 1997.

Owing to a complex ratification process, it entered into force on 16 February 2005.

Currently, there are 192 Parties to the Kyoto Protocol.

============

Kyoto protocol is related to _____________ .

(a) Ozone depletion

(b) Global warming è

(c) Acid rain

(d) Climate change

Explanation:

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty adopted in 1997 that aimed to reduce the emission of gases that contribute to global warming. The protocol called for reducing the emissions of six greenhouse gases in 41 countries plus the European Union to 5.2 percent below 1990 levels.

As of June 2013, there are 192 parties to the Kyoto Protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, which aims to combat global warming.

 This total includes 191 states (189 United Nations member states as well as the Cook Islands and Niue) and one supranational union (the European Union).

On December 11, 1997, delegates from more than 150 countries signed the Kyoto Protocol, an agreement to lower the amount of greenhouse gases released into the atmosphere.

Human activities release greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, which have been proven to cause climate change.

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39. The concept of ‘carbon credit’ originated from which one of the following?

(a) Kyoto Protocol

(b) Earth Summit

c) Montreal protocol

d) G-8 summit

Carbon Credit:

According to the Corporate Credit Institute, a carbon credit is a tradable permit or certificate that provides the holder of the credit the right to emit one ton of carbon dioxide or an equivalent of another greenhouse gas.

The concept of carbon credits emerged during the Kyoto Protocol discussions and is an integral part of today's environmental economics.

Carbon credits basically refer to certificates giving the beholder the right to emit 1 tonne of carbon dioxide or its equivalent.

Carbon credits are measurable, verifiable emission reductions from certified climate action projects. These projects reduce, remove or avoid greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.

In theory, carbon offsets help balance your carbon footprint by funding environmental projects that reduce greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

One carbon offset credit supposedly equals one metric ton of carbon dioxide, or a comparable amount of other greenhouse gases, removed from the air.

==========

Consider the following statements:

i) Kyoto Protocol came into force in year 2005.

(ii) Kyoto protocol primarily deals vis reducing overall green house missions

iii) Carbon dioxide is five times more effective as a greenhouse gas than methane.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

(a) (i), and (ii) è

(b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (i) only

(d) (iii) only.

Methane is more than 25 times as potent as carbon dioxide at trapping heat in the atmosphere.

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